Coagulation MCQs Part V

Hematology MCQS Part II

Hematology MCQS Part II, Hematology Multiple Choice Questions and Answers for Competitive Exams. This hematology quiz is designed to check how well you understand the basics.

Q No. 1: Which of the following statement best defines hemophilia?

Answer:

(a) Autosomal recessive disorder affecting both sexes equally
(b) Associated with bleeding from gums and Skin
(c) Due deficiency of factor X
(d) Platelet functional defect
(e) Sex Linked disorder commonly affecting males

Q No. 2: Neutropenia is defined as?

Answer:

(a) Increase in absolute neutrophil count
(b) Left shift seen in neutrophils
(c) Reduction in absolute neutrophil count
(d) Reduction in total leucocyte count
(e) Right shift in neutrophils

Q No. 3: Neutrophilia is?

Answer:

(a) Decreased absolute neutrophil count
(b) Elevated absolute neutrophil count
(c) Increase in total Leucocyte count
(d) Leukamoid reaction
(e) Light shift in neutrophils

Q No. 4: Which of the following is not a congenital red Blood cell membrane defect?

Answer:

(a) Hereditary elliptocytosis
(b) Hereditary ovalocytosis
(c) Hereditary Spherocytosis
(d) Hereditary sphstomatorytosis
(e) Thalassemia

Q No. 5: Which of the following inclusions represents denatured hemoglobin?

Answer:

(a) Basophilic Stippling
(b) Cabot rings
(c) Heinz bodies
(d) Howell Jolly bodies
(e) Pappenheimer bodies

Q No. 6: Eosinophilia does not occur in which of the following conditions?

Answer:

(a) Allergic diseases
(b) Hodgkin lymphoma
(c) Parasitic infections
(d) Skin disease
(e) Tuberculosis

Q No. 7: The diagnostic test for circulatory iron overload is?

Answer:

(a) Bone marrow trephine biopsy
(b) Liver biopsy
(d) Serum ferritin
(d) Serum LDH levels
(e) Total iron binding capacity

Q No. 8: Mucosal bleeding and petechiae are strongly associated with all these except?

Answer:

(a) Connective tissue disorder
(b) Haemophilia
(c) Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
(d) Storage load disease
(e) Von Willebrand disease

Q No. 9: Beta Thalassemia is diagnosed on?

Answer:

(a) Blood Complete picture
(b) Bone marrow examination
(c) iron profile
(d) Flow Cytology
(e) Hemoglobin electrophoresis

Q No. 10: Philadelphia chromosome is the most common and distinguished feature of?

Answer:

(a) Acute lymphoid leukemia (ALL)
(b) Acute myeloid leukemia (AML)
(c) Chronic lymphoid leukemia (CLL)
(d) Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)
(e) Myelodysplastic Syndrome (MD)

Q No. 11: Does thrombocytosis occur?

Answer:

(a) Chronic idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
(b) Disseminated intravascular coagulation
(c) Essential thrombocythemia
(d) Post-transfusion purpura
(e) Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura

Q No. 12: In hemophilia?

Answer:

(a) Activated Partial thromboplastin time Prolonged
(b) Bleeding time Prolonged
(c) Platelet count Low
(d) Prothrombin Time Prolonged
(e) Ristocen-induced platelet aggregation Abnormal

Q No. 13: Which of the following is not a vitamin-dependent factor?

Answer:

(a) II
(b) VII
(c) IX
(d) X
(e) XI

Q No. 14: The shift to the right of hemoglobin-oxygen dissociation curve mass?

Answer:

(a) Haemoglobin has an increased affinity for oxygen
(b) Lower affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen
(c) Conversion of Hb to methemoglobin
(d) Failure of Hb to be oxygenated
(e) Formation of deoxyhemoglobin

Q No. 15: A Pregnant mother with A- negative blood group becomes pregnant with a 0 Positive blood group child. She had a normal delivery. and the gynecologist advised her anti-D injection. According to your knowledge what test she Should undergo before the administration of anti-D?

Answer:

(a) Ham test
(b) Isopropanol precipitation test
(c) Kleihauer Betke Test
(d) Singer test
(e) Coombs test

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